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Problem 2. (10 points) Let fi, f2, fs be functions from the set N of natural numbers to the set R of real numbers. Suppose

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Problem 2. (10 points) Let fi, f2, fs be functions from the set N of natural numbers to the set R of real numbers. Suppose that fi-0(f2) and f2 0(A). Is it possible that fi(n)> fs(n) holds for all natural numbers n? Give an example or given an argument that this is impossible

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