Problem 6 10 points Consider a triangle A that has vertices x y x2 y2 and x3 y3 Provide a short convincing explanation stating why or why not it is possible to find a 2D affine transformation that will map the vertices of triangle A onto the vertices of any new triangle B You do not need to write a detailed mathematical proof but your reasoning must be clear You do not need to consider degenerate cases such as all vertices being colinear