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Prove that sin (cos x) = 1- x. There's no need for the negative at all. Why is this? If you figure out the
Prove that sin (cos x) = 1- x. There's no need for the negative at all. Why is this? If you figure out the first part, can you now show that cos (sin x) = 1 - x?
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Sin cosn 12 cosn y co Let sin2y 1 Cosy Substitution y cosn sin ...
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Elements Of Chemical Reaction Engineering
Authors: H. Fogler
6th Edition
013548622X, 978-0135486221
