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Purchasing power parity (PPP) inherently includes value of currency. It has been argued that the fundamental value of a currency is the value of the

Purchasing power parity (PPP) inherently includes value of currency. It has been argued that the fundamental value of a currency is the value of the exchange rate that would be determined by free-market forces of demand and supply. If PPP is related to currency in this manner, can we declare that it is also a product of free market forces? Discuss.

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