Q17. Programming languages, program translation tools, and debugging tools address only the implementation discipline of the Unified Process. a. true b. false Q18. ____ tools generate program and other source code from models, compile and link the programs, create databases, and create, register, and install all components. a. CAD b. CASE c. CADE d. CASD Q19. UP design models include package diagrams, interaction diagrams, and deployment diagrams. a. true b. false Q20. ____ perform design activities to create models that produce an architectural blueprint for system implementation. a. System developers b. System architects c. System managers d. System engineers Q21. A ____ is any instruction, such as an assignment statement or a computation, that updates or computes a data value. a. data function b. data operation c. data declaration d. control structure Q22. A set of commands and syntax requirements is called a ____. a. command structure b. command database c. command language d. command layer Q23. The ____ plays a dual role as a high-level manager and a tireless low-level worker. a. application system b. operating system c. system manager d. BIOS Q24. In ____ memory allocation, each process partition has its own offset value. a. partitioned b. contiguous c. dynamic d. noncontiguous Q25. Each memory page in virtual memory management is called a ____. a. page frame b. sheet c. bundle d. page tear Q26. As allocated by the OS, the resources that are apparent to a program or user are called ____. a. physical resources b. managed resources c. virtual resources d. exposed resources Q27. Memory allocation is less complex when the OS supports multitasking. a. true b. false Q28. A hypervisor can make the sum of physical resources allocated to all virtual machines appear greater than the underlying physical resources. a. true b. false Q29. The collection of system software that performs file and secondary storage management and access functions is known as a ____. a. disk management system b. storage management system c. file management system d. control management system Q30. Users and applications view secondary storage logically as a collection of files organized in directories and storage volumes. a. true b. false Q31. If the logical record size is less than the physical record size, a single physical record might contain multiple logical records. a. true b. false Q32. The storage I/O control layer processes service calls from the command layer or application program and issues commands to the storage I/O control layer to interact with hardware. a. true b. false Q33. On a desktop or laptop computer, a ____ is usually an entire physical disk, a partition of the disk, or a removable storage medium, such as a DVD or flash drive. a. page b. block c. sector d. volume Q34. The term ____ describes any architecture with a dedicated storage server attached to a general-purpose network to handle storage access requests from other servers. a. storage area network b. direct attached storage c. network-local storage d. network-attached storage Q35. The relationship between file types and the programs or OS utilities that manipulate them is called ____. a. file launcher b. file association c. shell d. directory manager Q36. ____ are composed of software components distributed across many computer systems and geographic locations. a. Information processes b. Information systems c. Information networks d. Information controls Q37. There is a standard objectclass or attribute name for all entities and resources common to most directories, such as people and shared printers. a. true b. false Q38. Advantages of P2P architecture include improved scalability and reducing the number of computer and network connections needed to support an application. a. true b. false Q39. The Internet and cloud computing change shape and can grow over time. a. true b. false Q40. A server manages system resources and provides access to these resources through a well-defined communication interface. a. true b. false Q41. The term ____ has been coined to summarize new approaches to distributing and accessing software and hardware services across the Internet. a. cloud computing b. distributed computing c. platform computing d. shared computing Q42. Static connections are easy to initialize and maintain. a. true b. false Q43. SaaS has substantial benefits from a consumer perspective. a. true b. false Q44. The costs of technology are usually high for developers and early adopters but then decrease slowly after introduction. a. true b. false Q45. Computer and software purchases are capital expenditures, even though the expected useful lifetime of computer hardware and software has decreased in recent years because of rapid technological change. a. true b. false Q46. IS resource acquisition and deployment should occur only in the context of a well-defined strategic plan for the organization as a whole. a. true b. false Q47. Electrical fires often generate heat and smoke as quickly as conventional fires do. a. true b. false Q48. A(n) longer-term power sag that is often caused by the power provider is known as a ____. a. blackout b. grayout c. brownout d. green down Q49. ____ can perform many malicious acts, including damaging or destroying important files, opening backdoors for potential hackers, and sending sensitive information to others. a. Viruses b. Signatures c. Logs d. Infectors Q50. A(n) ____ is a server that handles service requests from external users of applications. a. packet-filtering firewall b. proxy c. stateful firewall d. application firewall