Question 3 1 point possible {graded}| Why, according to Bawls. is a hypothetical contract between people of equal standing who are placed behind a veil of ignorance morally more signicant than an actual contract? a] Because it is not tainted by asymmetries in bargaining power {e.g. differences in people's wealth or intelligence or strength}. b} Because it is more thoughtful. c) Because people often do not know what they want. [1} Because an actual contract is not tainted by asymmetries in bargaining power (e.g. differences in people's wealth or intelligence or strength}. e] Because tacit consent is more informative than a hypothetical contract