Question: Compare the neoclassical theory of prices with either classical/Marxian or post-Keynesian theory. How do they differ? Which do you think gives the most satisfactory vision, and why?

I have to compare price theory between two school of thoughts. Which 2 school of thoughts is fitting to compare (post keynesian, marxian or classical?) Between post keynesian, marxian or classical, which gives the most satisfactory vision in price theory?