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Question: Soppose that A>B>C>D and that the utility of these alternatives staisfy U(A) + U (D) = U(B) + U(C). Is this true that U(1/2
Question: Soppose that A>B>C>D and that the utility of these alternatives staisfy U(A) + U (D) = U(B) + U(C). Is this true that U(1/2 B + 1/2 C) is greater than U(1/2 A + 1/2D) because the former has a smaller variance? why or why not?
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