Ranbaxy$($India$)$ in Brazil. $$ Ranbaxy, an$$ India$-$based pharmaceutical$$ firm, has continuing problems with its cholesterol reduction$$ product's price in one of its rapidly growing$$ markets, Brazil. All product is produced in$$ India, with costs and pricing initially stated in Indian rupees$($Rps$),$ but converted to Brazilian reais$($R$$)$ for distribution and sale in Brazil. In$2009,$ the unit volume was priced at Rps $20$ comma $900,$ with a Brazilian real price set at R$ $900.$ But in$2010,$ the real appreciated in value versus the$$ rupee, averaging Rps $26\mathrm{.}47$ divided by R$$.$ In order to preserve the real price and product profit margin in$$ rupees, what should the new rupee price be set$$ at$?$

Question content area bottom

Part $1$

$$First$,$ the implied spot exchange rate for the previous$$ year, $2009$ must be found.

The implied spot exchange rate for the previous$$ year, $2009$ is Rps

$$

$23\mathrm{.}22/$R$$.($Round to two decimal$$ places.$)$

Part $2$

Assuming that Ranbaxy wishes to preserve the Brazilian real price for$$ competitiveness, the same Brazilian real price must be converted back into Indian rupees with the new spot exchange rate in rupees per real.

The new price is Rps

$$

$23823\mathrm{.}00.($Round to two decimal$$ places.$)$

Part $3$

$($Select from the$$ drop$-$down menus.$)$

Because the Indian rupee

$$

in value against the Brazilian$$ real, the implied Indian rupee price is actually

$$

than it was the previous year. This means that Ranbaxy would keep the same

$$

price and either enjoy a much larger profit margin in

Brazilian real

$,$ or potentially keep the

$$

price the same as the previous year and actually reduce the

$$

price. just need answer for the blanks