Question
Rogers (1989) explains that validity of psychological measures was a surrogate for definition of measurement. How do you think William James might have viewed valid
Rogers (1989) explains that "validity" of psychological measures was a surrogate for definition of measurement. How do you think William James might have viewed "valid" measurements both in terms of their theoretical basis and empirical value?
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Applied Psychology Research Training And Practice
Authors: Rowan Bayne, Gordon Jinks
2nd Edition
0857028359, 9780857028358
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