Say I have a random variable A that is a standard normal. Say also, I have a continuous random variable B. The conditional PDF of B given a specific value A=a, is: (1/sqrt(2*pi))*exp(-(b+(2*a))^2)/2). From this I first thought I could conclude that B is a normal as well, with mean -2*a and variance 1, but now I think I'm wrong here. Can you tell me whether I'm right or wrong and in the latter case not tell me what distribution Y actually has