Question
Should court fines for offenses (i.e. traffic, quality of life, shoplifting, property damage, etc.) be the same for the poor and the wealthy? Should it
Should court fines for offenses (i.e. traffic, quality of life, shoplifting, property damage, etc.) be the same for the poor and the wealthy? Should it be dollar for dollar equal, or should it be a sliding scale percentage basis idea, based upon salary ranges (i.e. $10,000.00 to $20,000.00; $20,000.00 to $30,000.00, $30,000.00 to $40,000.00, ........$90,000.00 to $100,000.00, $100,000.00 to $110,000.00, etc.). Should the fine "Hurt" and make a point, or should it just be a set figure and if it hurts, it hurts, if it doesn't it doesn't?
Should the court be class conscious, or truly blind? Justice is supposed to be blind, so as to be impartial and fair to all. If we set punishments based upon wealth or lack thereof, is that equal, fair, and impartial?
The topic of punishment is an interesting one, since it affects each and everyone in any given society. There is always going to be someone who is disgruntled with what appears to them to be "disparity of treatment" and "unfairness", no matter how enforcement and punishment are meted out. How do we effectively, honestly, and compassionately answer those who claim this?
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