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Since passage of title in this scenario falls onto the current holder of the object of interest, is there a scenario in which the seller
Since passage of title in this scenario falls onto the current holder of the object of interest, is there a scenario in which the seller still is held as the title owner, though they do not have possession of the object of interest (such as a dealership having a client test drive a car but finding the driver got themselves into an incident with their car)?
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