Suppose a fund invests $1 million in each of the three portfolio firms. The first investment is held for the entire fund life and finally proves to be a total bust, returning nothing. The second investment is harvested quickly for $5 million and there is a distribution at that point with the usual terms. The third investment is the final one and turns out to also be a bust. If a clawback provision had been included in the agreement, would a clawback payment to the LPs be in order? (Ignore fees). Explain why or why not. If so, how much would be clawed back? 80% goes to LP and 20% to GP