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Suppose that a (European) call option with strike price $40 costs $13, and a (European) call option with strike price $50 costs $8, and a

 Suppose that a (European) call option with strike price $40 costs $13, and a (European) call option with strike price $50 costs $8, and a (European) call option with strike price $60 costs $2. All options have identical expiration dates. Is there an arbitrage? Prove it.

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