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Suppose that Great Britain and the United States are trading partners. Assume that the initial exchange rate in Great Britain is 0.76 = 1$. Now
Suppose that Great Britain and the United States are trading partners. Assume that the initial exchange rate in Great Britain is 0.76 = 1$. Now suppose that the opportunity cost of consumption in the United States begin to rise. Which of the following explain what is expected to happen in the British forex market?
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