Suppose that I have an independent random sample of 42 people, where I ask them about their wages and years of experience. In my sample, the odd numbered people (i.e. the 1st, 3rd, 5th etc people I sampled) have the following error term distribution ~ N(0, 2) and the even numbered people I sampled (i.e. the 2nd, 4th, 6th, etc people I sampled) have their error term distributed as e,~ N(0.2.5). Suppose that I want to estimate the population model Wages, Bo + B ln(Experience,) + s. If we have sample variation in the r's and EleX] Ele] = 0, do you anticipate that I will be able to estimate 8o and Var (Bo) without bias? Why or why not?