Suppose that you carry out the test in the previous problem and that, unbeknownst to you, the percentage is not actually equal to 30% . Which is true of the probability of a type II error?

a. It will be larger than the chance of type I error

b. It will be the same as the probability of type I error

c. It will be smaller than the chance of type I error

d. It depends on the true percentage

I need typed answer with explanation