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Suppose the standard deviations of the British and U.S. stock markets have risen to 38% and 22%, respectively, whereas the correlation between the U.S. and

Suppose the standard deviations of the British and U.S. stock markets have risen to 38% and 22%, respectively, whereas the correlation between the U.S. and British markets has risen to 0.67. What is the new beta of the U.S. market from the British perspective?

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