Supposing that Utilitarianinsm is in fact the moral basis of property rights, what moral rules for the distribution of property will be implied by this?

Group of answer choices

Utilitarianism implies that property should be distributed, and transwerred according to the rules of a hypothetical contract that would be worked out by a group of fully informed, ideally rational people.

Utilitarianism implies that property should be distributed in whatever way maximizes the aggregate utility of the whole society, and if that requires that we take property away from some people and give it to others, then so be it$.$

Utilitarianism implies that the right to hold and dispose of property is a negative right, which means that is morally wrong to take away even the tinest fraction of someone's property without their express uncoerced consent.

Utilitarianism implies that property should be distributed according to the rules established by John Locke, in which property is acquired by mixing one's labor with unowned resources, or by consensual exchange with someone who so acquired their property.