The bank robber's note "Give me the money" usually satisfies the requirement under the federal bank robbery statute that the robbery be done by "force and violence, or by intimidation," because the situation instills fear in a reasonable person that force or violence might accompany the refusal to give up the money. What if the teller to whom the note was given was part of the robbery scheme? If she goes to other tellers and gets them to give her the money based on the note, is the requisite "intimidation" present?( I need a long explanation not U.S vs Gordon case)