The Pampas Bank of Argentina is worried about a very large fall in interest rates (around 8%). The bank is financed by a long-term fixed coupon bond and makes very short-term commercial loans. The bank typically uses a simple leverage-adjusted duration gap method to estimate its interest rate exposure. However, the Chief Risk Officer suggests that such measure may not be appropriate in this situation. Do you agree? Why? Will the basic duration measure under or over-estimate the exposure