The Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 is known as "Dr. Wiley's Law." It is generally regarded by non-economic historians as representing the triumph of consumer interests over producer interests. Why might an economist likely be somewhat wary of this interpretation? What evidence would a skeptical economist likely look for to determine the motives behind the passage of this law? What would be the significance of the fact that the Pure Food and Drug Act was passed in 1906, right when urbanization and technological change were fostering new products that competed significantly with existing producers' interests