The World Values Survey was taken in 60 different countries. In one of those countries the percentage of people who said they were "Very Happy" was higher than the percentage for the United States in every income category. Would it still be possible for that country to have a lower percentage of all of their respondents who said they were "Very Happy" compared with the percentage for the United States? Explain why or why not. (note: the explanation counts for 3 of the 4 points)