There are two common equations for the variance of a random variable x: 02 2i :1 3i:II 32 (1} 0'2 = E[x2] Il:!_~'.'[;r])2 (2} a] If {1} refers to a sample. What value of 1?. would make [1] exactly equivalent to [2]? b] Assume the criteria from part (a) holds, demonstrate that [1] and {2} are equivalent. Show mathematical proof, and explain