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There is obviously a different intent behind race-based classifications designed to remedy past harms as compared to race-based discrimination designed to exclude or harm others.

There is obviously a different intent behind race-based classifications designed to remedy past harms as compared to race-based discrimination designed to exclude or harm others. Yet, both types of classifications are still subject to strict scrutiny under current case law. Should there be a difference in how these types of classifications are treated? Why or why not? Please support your views with examples from relevant cases

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