This post is from Lucca Christopher, which I have reposted here:

Anna is about to buy a house on a hill. Prior to the purchase, she obtains a promise from Betty, the owner of the adjacent property, that Betty will not build any structure that would block Anna's view. In reliance on this promise, Anna buys the house. Is Betty's promise binding? Why or why not?

I wrote in my notebook yes because it is a unilateral contract, because she is the one side that made a promise and if she built something that did block her view that would be a breach in their "oral" contract and if the view was the sole reason she bought the house and whatever she built is that bad, that she goes to court over it, could the court imply promissory estoppel?