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Traditional mean/variance measures such as the Sharpe ratio show that for the period 1994-2016 the risk adjusted performance of most alternative investments is superior to

Traditional mean/variance measures such as the Sharpe ratio show that for the period 1994-2016 the risk adjusted performance of most alternative investments is superior to traditional investments.

However, it can be argued that this approach seriously understates the risk of alternative investments, why is this the case?

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