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Two investors hold portfolios with the following allocations: Investor A: Bonds 20% & Stocks 80% Investor B: Bonds 30% & Stocks 70% Assuming all else

Two investors hold portfolios with the following allocations:

Investor A: Bonds 20% & Stocks 80%

Investor B: Bonds 30% & Stocks 70%

Assuming all else is equal (same expected returns, volatilities, correlations, risk-free rate, and investment horizon), are these managers holding mean-variance efficient portfolios? Does this change if they did not have the risk-free asset?

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