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We don't see a clear convergence in terms of per capita income between poor and rich countries empirically (there are only a few exceptions, like

We don't see a clear convergence in terms of per capita income between poor and rich countries empirically (there are only a few exceptions, like the Asian Tigers). This suggests that poor countries do not grow faster than rich countries on average (and oftentimes, they grow at lower rates). How can you explain these empirical facts? Can the Solow model explain the lack of convergence between poor and rich countries?

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