We saw for commodity futures that when F0 > [S0 + PV(storage cost)]erT , then an arbitrage opportunity exists and involves going short the futures contract. Why do we not need to know the consumption benefit to know that an arbitrage opportunity exists in this case?

	a.	Because if F0 > [S0 + PV(storage cost)]erT is true, then convenience yield is zero
	b.	Because if F0 > [S0 + PV(storage cost)]erT is true, then consumption benefit is zero
	c.	Because if F0 > [S0 + PV(storage cost)]erT is true, then F0 > [S0 + PV(storage cost) - Consumption benefit]erT is also true, for any nonnegative consumption benefit
	d.	Because if F0 > [S0 + PV(storage cost)]erT is true, then the market is at full carry