When looking at all results of the 4 heighted numbers, I find that all these coefficients are statically significant at 0.001 level [i.e. ]. Thus, it means IFRS is comparable to U.S. GAAP and the elimination of 20F is suitable. Do I understand it correctly? If not, please explain. [Hint: show me some results from the Tables 7 and 8 to help support your argument] When looking at all results of the 4 heighted numbers, I find that all these coefficients are statically significant at 0.001 level [i.e. ]. Thus, it means IFRS is comparable to U.S. GAAP and the elimination of 20F is suitable. Do I understand it correctly? If not, please explain. [Hint: show me some results from the Tables 7 and 8 to help support your argument]