When prices are (p 1 , p 1 ) (2,1) a consumer demands (x 1 , x 2 ) (1,2), and when prices are (p 1 ,p 2 ) (1,2) the consumer demands (x 1 ,x 2 ) (2,1) Is this behavior consistent with the model of utility maximization

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When prices are (p 1 , p 1 ) = (2,1) a consumer demands (x 1 , x 2 ) = (1,2), and when prices

When prices are (p₁, p₁) = (2,1) a consumer demands (x₁, x₂) = (1,2), and when prices are (p₁,p₂) = (1,2) the consumer demands (x₁,x₂) = (2,1). Is this behavior consistent with the model of utility maximization?

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