Which of the following accurately reflects the advantages to the borrower of a loan with a 30-year amortization and a 10-year term?

Group of answer choices

The risk to the borrower that a prepayment may be disallowed is reduced.

The risk associated with the fixed-rate requirements of this type of loan are reduced.

The mismatch between term and amortization eliminate the need for a balloon payment, lowering the risk to the borrower.

The 30-year term allows for a lower periodic payment and the balloon payment in year 10 can occur at the end of the intended holding period.

explanation pls