Which of the following is a logical consequence of taking the right to property to be a negative right?

Group of answer choices

If the right to property is a negative right, then people only have the right to take property without consent if it is definityely done for the greater good.

If the right to property is a negative right, then it is actually only a legal right, and not a genuine moral right.

If the right to property is a negative right, then noone ever has the right to take any property from anybody without their explicit, fully voluntary consent.

If the right to property is a negative right, then only the government ever has the right to take any property from anybody without their explicit, fully voluntary consent.