Which of the following is inconsistent with respect to the gambler's fallacy?

The gambler's fallacy has nothing to do with probabilities.

When watching successive coin flips, if heads is the result successively, the belief is that the odds of that continuing to happen are lesser, and therefore it is a better probability to bet on tails.

Because each flip of a coin is a separate action, the probability of the coin flip, using the gambler's fallacy, changes drastically from fifty $(50\%)$ percent.

None of the above.