Which of the following is not a correct step associated with performing a money market hedge of a foreign currency receivable due in one year? Select ALL that apply to receive marks in this question Select one or more: i. Selling foreign currency in the spot market today in order to purchase the domestic currency ii. Borrowing the contracted size of the receivable in the foreign currency money market today iii. Investing in your domestic money market today iv. Selling the foreign currency at the one year spot exchange rate in order to purchase domestic currency v. Investing the present value of the receivable in the foreign currency money market today vi. Receiving in one year's time the principal and interest on an investment you made in the domestic currency