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Why are we saying that a future increase in income is worth less because it is discounted? consider a increase in income of 100 in

Why are we saying that a future increase in income is worth less because it is discounted?

consider a increase in income of 100 in period 1, why do we increase our consumption in period 1 more than period two when the real interest rate equals to the degree of impatience? consider the formula of Y2/(1+r), thanks !

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