Question
Why can't a fund that has stocks traded in the U.S market have negative correlation with the market (index such as S&P 500)? Must it
Why can't a fund that has stocks traded in the U.S market have negative correlation with the market (index such as S&P 500)? Must it always be positive since the fund includes stocks traded already in the index?
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Technical Analysis Of Stock Trends
Authors: Robert D. Edwards, John Magee, W.H.C. Bassetti
11th Edition
1032241829, 978-1032241821
