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why does the denominator in the BOPM use the risk-free interest rate as a discount rate instead of some higher risk-adjusted rate? (what does does
why does the denominator in the BOPM use the risk-free interest rate as a discount rate instead of some higher risk-adjusted rate?
(what does does have to do with p parameter used in BOPM)
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The Evolution Of Nordic Finance
Authors: Steffen Elkiær Andersen
2011th Edition
0230241557, 978-0230241558
