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Why is it true that a reinvestment rate is implicitly assumed whenever we find the present value of a future cash flow?Would it be possible
Why is it true that a reinvestment rate is implicitly assumed whenever we find the present value of a future cash flow?Would it be possible to find PV of a FV without specifying an implicit reinvestment rate?
For a firm that has adequate access to capital markets, is it more reasonable to assume reinvestment at the WACC or IRR?
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