(Without loss of generality assume that the expected/maximal exposures mentioned here correspond to a single time point in future, T.) Bank A uses for economic capital (EC) a measure equal to: 1.4 * EPE. Bank B, instead, uses the weighted average: 70% * EPE + 30% * ME. How small (or, indeed, how big?) does the ME (maximal exposure) need to be, relative to the EPE, for Bank A to end up putting aside (for this specific EC aspect) more EC than Bank B?