You are expecting annual cash flows of $$10,000$ in years $1-5$; $$15,000$ in years $6-10$; and $$25,000$ in years $11-25.$ If the rate of interest is $6\%$ compounded annually, calculate the present value of this cash flow stream. My question is$,$ couldn't I just use the Annuity Present Value formula $->$ PMTx$(1-(1+$r$^-5))$ to solve each PV from each cash flow? When I enter $10,000$x$(1-(1\mathrm{.}06^-5))$ I get $42$k something which is correct but when I do it with $25,000$x$(1-(1\mathrm{.}06^-5))$ I get $200$k plus which is well above the answer.