Question
You have been retained as a consultant by a business that is considering production of a new product. This production would require an initial capital
You have been retained as a consultant by a business that is considering production of a new product.
This production would require an initial capital outlay of $84 million. This capital expenditure
can be depreciated (straight line) over a 3-year life of the project with no salvage value. Assume
the firm faces a 25% marginal tax rate and a cost of capital of 8%. If the project is funded, the
resulting Net Operating Profit BEFORE Depreciation & Taxes (think EBITDA) are given below.
For purposes of your initial analysis (parts a through d) assume that accounting depreciation and
economic depreciation are the same.
Net Operating Profit BEFORE Depreciation & Taxes (EBITDA)
Year 1$30,000,000
Year 2$35,000,000
Year 3$35,000,000
(a)Calculate the Cash Flow and Economic Profit for each year. Reminder, the "year 0"is included
to capture the initial outflow in the CF analysis. Explain and Elaborate.
Cash Flow Economic Profit
Year 0
Year 1
Year 2
Year 3
(b)What is present value of the cash flows for this project? ExplainPV of CF =
(c)What is the present value of the stream of economic profits (assume that accounting
depreciation and economic depreciation are the same). Explain
PV of EP =
(d)
How does the present value of the Economic Profits compare to the NPV of the cash flows for the
project? Does that surprise you? Explain
(e)Now assume that the market value of the capital does not decrease as suggested by "straight
line" accounting depreciation, but rather that the market value of the capital is given as listed
below (in other words, accounting and economic depreciation are not the same).
At end of year 1$50,000,000
At end of year 2$20,000,000
At end of year 3$0
Based on this economic depreciation schedule, calculate the economic profit of the project.
Economic Profit
Year 1
Year 2
Year 3
(f)What is the present value of this stream of economic profit? Explain PV of EP =
(g) If the tax code were changed to allow managers to "expense" their capital expenditure (in this
context, "expense" means take the full tax deduction from a capital expenditure immediately rather
than depreciate it), would the present value of cash flows rise or fall? WHY?
PV of the Cash Flows would RISE or FALL?
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