You said, "The study revealed that certain scents possess the power to regulate behavior, even modulating the impact of pharmacological agents. For instance, a particular aroma linked to a drug can elicit a conditioned response, potentially altering a person's conduct and the drug's outcomes.The findings of this research are particularly relevant to healthcare professionals, particularly those who work with people with developmental disabilities."

Are you suggesting that an aroma is a drug? How is this different than straight classical conditioning? This sounds like reinstatement to me, no? How is this different? Is it?