You would like to estimate the CAPM to determine the risk of an asset i$,$ using the regression equation:

Rit$-$RFt$=\backslash$alpha i$+\backslash$beta i$($ RMt$-$RFt$)+\backslash$epsi it $(1)$

where Rit is the return on asset i at time t$,$ RFt is the risk$-$free rate at time t$,$ and RMt is the return on the market at time t$.$

You use available monthly data from January $2000$ to December $2023$ to compute the excess returns $($Rit$-$RFt$)$ at each time t for the asset i$,$ and the excess market returns $($RMt$-$RFt$)$ at each time t$.$ From the estimation of Equation $(1),$ you find that the estimate for $\backslash$alpha i is $-0\mathrm{.}7883$ while the associated standard error is $0\mathrm{.}3294.$ Also, the estimate for $\backslash$beta i is $1\mathrm{.}0238,$ while the associated standard error is $0\mathrm{.}0924.$ In addition, the obtained R$-$square $($R$2)$ is $0\mathrm{.}8091.$ Match the following statements to the corresponding answers: $[0\mathrm{.}2576,$ Yes, No$,80\mathrm{.}91\%,2\mathrm{.}3931]$

q$1$

The statistic for testing the null hypothesis that $\backslash$alpha i$=0$ against the alternative $\backslash$alpha i $!=0$ is:

q$2$

Is the asset mispriced according to the CAPM?

q$3$

Do you have statistical evidence against the null hypothesis that $\backslash$beta i$=1?$

q$4$

The variation in the return of the asset explained by the excess market return is

q$5$

The statistic for testing the null hypothesis that $\backslash$beta i$=1$ against the alternative $\backslash$beta i$!=1$ is: