Suppose that most of the teams in a given league are owned by individuals, while two are

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Suppose that most of the teams in a given league are owned by individuals, while two are owned by corporations. If the profits of the individually owned teams rise, but that of the corporate-owned teams remains flat, is it fair to say that this is an inferior ownership structure? Why or why not?

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The Economics Of Sports

ISBN: 9780133022926

5th Edition

Authors: Michael A. Leeds, Peter Von Allmen

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