According to the CAPM formula, a zero-beta asset should have the same expected rate of return as
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According to the CAPM formula, a zero-beta asset should have the same expected rate of return as the risk-free rate. Can a zero-beta asset still have a positive standard deviation? Does it make sense that such a risky asset would not offer a higher rate of return than a risk-free asset in a world in which investors are risk averse?
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