Question: 1. Can a property owner be liable for injuries when a dangerous condition is open and obvious? Does the owner have a duty to warn
1. Can a property owner be liable for injuries when a dangerous condition is open and obvious? Does the owner have a duty to warn when the dangerous condition is open and obvious?
2. Can a property owner be liable for injuries when a dangerous condition is open and obvious and the injured party was well aware of the dangerous condition?
3. Does Burton’s knowledge of the dangerous condition merely raise an issue of fact as to her own comparative negligence?
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