Can you use (bar{R}^{2}) to compare the fit of a (log -log) and a log-linear regression? Why
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Can you use \(\bar{R}^{2}\) to compare the fit of a \(\log -\log\) and a log-linear regression? Why or why not? Can you use \(\bar{R}^{2}\) to compare the fit of a log-log and a linearlog regression? Why or why not?
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